I was examining primes q that are q=(n+1)p−np with p also prime.
There seems to be more than one solution for most n.
In the table below all the first solutions of p up to 2000 and for n up to 200:
n1234567891011121314151617181920212223242526272829303132333435363738394041424344454647484950p333353773331733435316075191272293331333149353233583333773337535−337n51525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100p293479531953−−173357331711476119233519757333314117953531093317361313077709543n101102103104105106107108109110111112113114115116117118119120121122123124125126127128129130131132133134135136137138139140141142143144145146147148149150p513753−593551135−139269−71335573−34159331499101167−773−113−373−57133527113n151152153154155156157158159160161162163164165166167168169170171172173174175176177178179180181182183184185186187188189190191192193194195196197198199200p5915833437333713738947331316711173331953372695319434311333−134153353−335−3159
47 is the first n that has no solution for
p<2000.
I tried n=47 for higher p but still no solution for
p<10000
Question: Is there a way to prove that q=48p−47p is never prime?
After factoring 48p−47p for several p, I found the smallest prime factor is always ≡1(modp) but I don't see how this helps.