NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam
question with answers
Question 1
What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
Globulin
Albumin
Clotting factors
Complement proteins
Albumin (approximately 60% of total plasma protein at a concentration of
about 4 g/dl) is the most abundant plasma protein. NR507 Advanced
Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.
Question 2
Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant tumors of
glandular or squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to
the epithelium and have not broken through the local basement membrane
or invaded the surrounding tissue. Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell
structure.
Question 3
Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and
reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?
Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
Gram-stain technique
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
DNA testing
Microscopic evaluation of Gram-stained slides of clinical specimens is
deemed positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae if gram-negative diplococci with
the typical “kidney bean” morphologic appearance are found inside
polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Such a finding is considered adequate for the
diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man. The other options
are not relevant to the diagnosis of this condition.
Question 4
The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?
Ovarian
Uterine
Cervical
Vaginal
The Pap test, an examination of cervical epithelial scrapings, readily detects
early oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV)infection. The Pap test is not
used for screening the other cancer sites listed.
Question 5
0 / 2 pts
Causes of hyperkalemia include:
Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition
Several types of drug-resistant strains have been identified; they are
penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae (PPNG), which is resistant to
penicillin; tetracycline-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (TRNG), which is resistant to
tetracycline; chromosomal control of mechanisms of resistance of N.
gonorrhoeae (CMRNG), which is resistant to penicillin and tetracycline; and
increasingly a fluoroquinolone-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (QRNG). The other
options are not major concerns. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm
exam question with answers.
Question 7
2 / 2 pts
Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(an):
Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens
Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that
results in disease or damage to the host. The other options are not accurate
definitions of hypersensitivity.
Question 8
2 / 2 pts
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
IgM
IgG
IgE
IgA
Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code for
increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e., interleukin
[IL]–4, IgE, leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the
endoplasmic reticulum. None of the other options are associated with
childhood asthma.
Question 9
2 / 2 pts
Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old
child?
Parental history of asthma
Jugular vein distention
Pressure changes are important because increased left ventricular filling
pressures back up into the pulmonary circulation, where they force plasma
out through vessel walls, causing fluid to accumulate in lung tissues
(pulmonary edema). This selection is the only option that accurately
identifies the disorder described in the question.
Question 11
Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its
excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for
hemolytic anemia
Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to
test for iron deficiency anemia
Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood
sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.
The Schilling test indirectly evaluates vitamin B12 absorption by
administering radioactive B12 and measuring excretion in the urine. This
selection is the only option that accurately describes a Schilling test. NR
Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.
Question 12
2 / 2 pts
How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for
glucose is achieved?
126 mg/dl
150 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
200 mg/dl
When the plasma glucose reaches 180 mg/dl, as occurs in the individual with
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, the threshold for glucose is achieved.
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)
1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down
syndrome?
Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS)
Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13,
trisomy 18, and Down syndrome include VSD and PDA (see Table 33-2). The
other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18,
and Down syndrome.
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
Iron deficiency
Pernicious
Sideroblastic
Hemolytic
Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. The
remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias.
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which
nerve?
Vagus
Phrenic
Brachial
Pectoral
IgE
IgG
IgM
Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products
of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1).
Question 20
2 / 2 pts
What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
20 to 30
60 to 90
100 to 120
200 to 240
Because it cannot undergo mitotic division, the erythrocyte has a limited life
span of approximately 120 days.
Question 21
2 / 2 pts
What is the life span of platelets (in days)?
10
30
90
120
A platelet circulates for approximately 10 days and ages. Macrophages of the
mononuclear phagocyte system, mostly in the spleen, remove platelets.
Question 22
2 / 2 pts
Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins
where?
Prefrontal cortex
From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the
infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1)
colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread.
Question 24
2 / 2 pts
The coronary ostia are located in the:
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Coronary sinus
Aorta
Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called the
coronary ostia.
Question 25
2 / 2 pts
Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?
A
B
C
D
Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted.
Question 26
2 / 2 pts
What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?
Glomerular filtration
Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
Increased heart rate
Compensatory hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy allows the kidney to respond to an increase in
workload throughout life. The remaining options are not relevant to
accommodating an increased workload.
Aldosterone
Erythropoietin
Angiotensinogen
Erythropoietin is produced by the fetal liver and in the adult kidney and is
essential for normal erythropoiesis. This statement is not true of the other
options.
Question 29
2 / 2 pts
If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per
minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?
60 to 70
40 to 60
30 to 40
10 to 20
If the SA node is damaged, then the AV node will become the heart’s
pacemaker at a rate of approximately 40 to 60 spontaneous depolarizations
per minute. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with
answers.
Question 30
2 / 2 pts
What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?
To evaluate the cause of hypoxia
To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane
To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations
Spirometry measures volume and flow rate during forced expiration. The
alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient is used to evaluate the cause of hypoxia.
Diffusing capacity is a measure of the gas diffusion rate at the
alveolocapillary membrane. Arterial blood gas analysis can be used to
determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations.
Question 31
2 / 2 pts
Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?
