How Can I Handle a Firm Seller’s Per Diem Deadline After Escrow Contract Expiration?
I'm currently out of contract since June 28th from a 60-day escrow on a property I'm purchasing in California due to delays in selling my out-of-state property. My out-of-state property finally closed on July 3rd, and it will take me until around July 23rd to receive the loan documents for the California property. The seller is insisting on a July 15th deadline and wants me to sign an addendum that includes a $250 per day per diem from July 1st until July 15th. I won't receive credit for this amount after July 15th, which feels like extortion, but they refuse to extend the deadline beyond July 15th. I'm uncertain about my legal options. I don't want to lose the house, and they might send me a cancellation request next week, which I would be reluctant to sign. The seller is being inconsiderate, and we're too close to the deadline for them to resort to arbitration and force me to cancel or attempt to keep my deposit. By the time we reach that point, or even before, we should have the loan documents by July 23rd. It seems like the seller wants to cancel and retain my deposit. The addendum with the July 15th deadline would also result in me losing $250 per day, and if we don't close before the 15th, they get to keep that amount. I have no intention of backing out of the deal and am genuinely interested in closing. I just need a bit more time, but the seller wants to benefit without providing any security for me. I really need some expert legal advice.
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Has the seller already provided you with a notice to perform?
Yes, and I want all contingencies removed.
I'm assuming your contract is a standard CAR-RPA purchase agreement. If that is the case, once the seller has delivered a Notice to Seller to Perform (NSP), the seller can cancel after two days. After this period, the seller must agree to release your deposit, minus escrow fees and any other costs incurred by you during the escrow, as well as the amount specified in the liquidated damages clause, if you initialed that section of the contract (I typically do not recommend this to clients, but buyers often sign the clause anyway).
You clearly do not want to forfeit 3% of the gross sales price to the seller, so you would refuse to release any of the escrow funds, which would require the seller to sue you for the difference. However, the seller can simply relist the property while your funds remain in escrow, meaning your leverage is quite limited (unless you did not initial the liquidated damages clause).
The seller is requesting an additional $8,250 to extend the escrow until July 23. You could agree under protest and then pursue legal action against the seller after closing to recover the funds in small claims court, arguing that your acceptance was obtained under duress and that the terms were unconscionable. However, there is a risk of losing that legal battle.
You might consider making a lump sum offer of a lesser amount (e.g., $4,125) for any closing before the 23rd.
These are some options to consider; however, from a purely legal perspective, the seller holds the advantage, as it seems he or she has acted reasonably within the law.
I understand that you find the seller's charge of $250 per day excessive, but it is not unreasonable given the size of the transaction. Nonetheless, it does undermine the voluntariness of the transaction, which is necessary for recovering your money in small claims court.
Your only other option is to refuse, proceed towards closing, and hope that when you are ready, the seller will
To clarify, I haven't released any contingencies.
Can they enter into another RPA with a different buyer while our escrow is still active?
How can you estimate the size of this transaction? His mortgage is likely $4k/month, and is $250/day reasonable? I have a good faith interest in closing, yet they are attempting to pressure me into canceling and keeping my money. Are they being reasonable? It seems like you are biased towards sellers.
Can they enter into another RPA and escrow with a different buyer and finalize the transaction while my funds are held in escrow?
Can they enter into another RPA with another buyer while our escrow remains not canceled?
Yes. You would need to file a lawsuit and record a lis pendens to prevent the sale.
How can you estimate the size of this transaction? His mortgage is probably $4k/month, and is $250/day reasonable?
Interest rates are currently rising rapidly. As a result, borrowing power will decrease, which will exert downward pressure on prices. This situation could provide grounds in court to argue that real damages may occur if the deal is not finalized promptly. In a typical rising real estate market, the seller is rarely harmed because they can always sell to the next buyer for a higher price than before. However, at this moment, that is not the case. The market is quite fluid, and things could change quickly.
I have a good faith interest in closing, yet they are trying to force me to cancel and keep my money anyway, claiming they are being reasonable? You seem biased towards sellers.
That's the first time I've encountered someone saying that. In reality, most listing agents view my involvement as unwelcome because I am one of the few real estate brokers who genuinely strives to help buyers secure a lower price. Most buyer's agents are focused on maximizing their commission, which typically means pushing for the highest possible sales price.
Now, putting aside my role as a real estate broker and adopting the perspective of a judge, the issue is straightforward: the CAR-RPA is designed by the California Association of Realtors to facilitate real estate transactions. The CAR has developed a robust contract that almost always favors the seller, ensuring that agents receive their commission. If there are escape routes for the buyer, it generally means the buyer's funds will also escape, leaving nothing for the agents.
If it appears that I am biased towards sellers, it is solely because the contract you signed is structured to heavily favor sellers—buyers often remain unaware of this since no agent will disclose it to them.
In my role as a real estate broker, I find the situation quite straightforward: the CAR-RPA, created by the California Association of Realtors, is intended to facilitate real estate transactions. The CAR has developed a robust contract that typically favors the seller, ensuring agents receive their commission. Clearly, if there are options for the buyer to withdraw, it often results in the buyer's funds being lost, leaving nothing for the agents.
The $250 per day seems excessive, and while I'm open to a compromise, the seller refuses to negotiate. I cannot meet the July 15th deadline and require an extension to July 23rd, but the seller will not extend beyond the 15th. It feels like the CAR-RPA is working against me. Shouldn't there be provisions to ensure the seller acts in good faith rather than setting unrealistic expectations that seem designed to cancel the deal and seek a higher offer from another buyer?
Currently, interest rates are rising rapidly. As a result, borrowing capacity is diminishing, which could lead to downward pressure on prices. This situation may provide grounds in court to argue that real damages could occur if the transaction is not completed promptly. In a typical rising real estate market, the seller is rarely at a disadvantage, as they can always find another buyer willing to pay more. However, that is not the case right now. The market is quite volatile, and conditions could change quickly.
This situation is also detrimental to me.
If the contract is structured to facilitate transactions, shouldn't there be provisions for the seller to grant a reasonable time extension for a buyer attempting to secure financing?
Would providing $4,000 as compensation for an extension until July 23rd improve my position?
If they still refuse, does the law indicate that I lose?
I see that you have rated my service as "bad." I hope you will reconsider, because your rating destroys my reputation in this online community, and it effectively relegates me to helping you for free (pro bono) going forward.
That said, I have spent the better part of two hours this morning searching Westlaw®, which is one of the two largest legal data research services in the world (and one to which I am practically the only person in the justanswer.com forum who has comprehensive access). If a legal question cannot be answered favorably via Westlaw research, then it can't be answered favorably by anyone, anywhere, at any price (unless the person who is answering is misrerresenting the law intentionally as a means of obtaining favor from you).
What I'm going to provide you is an extremely complicated legal argument. It's the sort of thing that would appear in an appellate brief or opinion -- so, I can't make it any easier to follow than I am doing, without degrading its value, because you may need to show it to a lawyer if your circumstances get to the point where you need to hire legal counse to represent you in your dispute. Here goes....
The precedent case on the covenant of good faith in California is Storek & Storek, Inc. v. Citicorp Real Estate, Inc. (2002) 100 Cal.App.4th 44. The court explains the legal doctrine as follows:
- It has long been recognized, of course, that every contract imposes upon each party a duty of good faith and fair dealing in the performance of the contract such that neither party shall do anything which will have the effect of destroying or injuring the right of the other party to receive the fruits of the contract. (Waller v. Truck Ins. Exchange, Inc. (1995) 11 Cal.4th 1, 36, 44 Cal.Rptr.2d 370, 900 P.2d 619.) The Supreme Court has clarified, however, that an implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing cannot contradict the express terms of a contract. (Carma Developers (Cal), Inc. v. Marathon Development California, Inc. (1992) 2 Cal.4th 342, 374, 6 Cal.Rptr.2d 467, 826 P.2d 710 (Carma).)[9]
- In Carma, a commercial lease expressly gave the lessor the right to terminate the lease and recapture the leasehold upon notice of the tenant's intent to sublet. After the tenant relocated its headquarters out of the area, it submitted a notice of intent to sublet approximately 80 percent of the premises. The lessor responded with a notice of termination and then (unsuccessfully) pursued negotiations of a new lease with the proposed subtenant, seeking to secure for itself the higher rents. The tenant obtained a judgment for breach of the implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing, but the Supreme Court directed that judgment be entered in favor of the lessor. The court held as a matter of law that because the lessor's termination of the lease was expressly permitted by the lease and clearly within the parties' expectations, such conduct could never violate an implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing. [emphasis added] (Carma, supra, 2 Cal.4th at pp. 351, 371-376, 6 Cal.Rptr.2d 467, 826 P.2d 710.).
That's wht you are up against here. You are in a place in the contract where the seller has performed everything that the seller has promised to performed, and seller is now waiting for you to perform. The seller has the right under the contract at this point to terminate the transaction. As a matter of law, seller's decision cannot be due to a lack of good faith. This gives seller the "high cards."
Now, what can you do about this situation? This is what I have come up with, and it's something that I believe a judge would view at least favorably enough to allow the case to go to trial -- which is what you want, because it means that you and seller could be tied up in court for a very long time -- and that could force a settlement, assuming that seller has competent legal counsel (if he doesn't, then he will ignore you, and you'll have to sue -- which under the CAR-RPA requires mediation, followed by arbitration, assuming you initialed everything).
Seller is offering you an opportunity to save the deal at a price. That price is high. It may be too high (legally unconscionable). If it is, then you could get an order from a court forcing the seller to restore to you the difference between a fair price and what would be an unlawful contractual penalty.
A California court will refuse to specifically enforce a contract, or any clause of a contract, that is found to be unconscionable at the time it was made. Civil Code § 1670.5. Civil Code §1670.5 applies to all contracts, not just those for the sale of goods. Armendariz v Foundation Health Psychcare Servs. (2000) 24 C4th 83. The court has the power to enforce the remainder of the contract without the unconscionable clause or to limit the application of any unconscionable clause so as to avoid an unconscionable result. Civil Code § 1670.5(a). See Little v Auto Stiegler, Inc. (2003) 29 C4th 1064, 1076.
Ordinarily, the contract would have been considered "made" when the last person who accepted signed the contract. In which case, you would be without recourse here, because you signed the liquidated damages clause, so as to avoid any unconscionable result. But, seller's demand for $250 per day is an offer to modify the contract, and that takes the liquidated damages clause, at least somewhat, "off the table" -- because the modification will be made on the date that you accept seller's terms. This gives the court the option of determining whether or not the $250 per day demand is unconscionable.
In general, a liquidated damages provision will be considered unreasonable, and therefore unenforceable, if it does not bear a reasonable relationship to the range of actual damages that the parties could have anticipated would flow from a breach. The amount established as liquidated damages "must represent the result of a reasonable endeavor by the parties to estimate a fair average compensation for any loss that may be sustained. In the absence of such relationship, a contractual clause purporting to predetermine damages 'must be construed as a penalty.'" Ridgley v Topa Thrift & Loan Ass'n (1998) 17 C4th 970, 977.
Civil Code § 3275 reflects the equitable rule against forfeitures, by providing relief from forfeiture even if the party seeking relief has breached the contract. It states that:
- Whenever, by the terms of an obligation, a party thereto incurs a forfeiture, or a loss in the nature of a forfeiture, by reason of his failure to comply with its provisions, he may be relieved therefrom, upon making full compensation to the other party, except in case of a grossly negligent, willful, or fraudulent breach of duty.
Under § 3275, any contractual provision by which money or property could be forfeited regardless of the actual damage suffered may be unenforceable as a penalty. If a liquidated damages clause is found to be a penalty, the party that has suffered damage may collect only the amount of actual damages it has sustained. Ridgley v Topa Thrift & Loan Ass'n (1998) 17 C4th 970, 977. The statute may be raised as an equitable defense to enforcement of the contract or serve as the basis for relief in an action for restitution of the forfeited property. Freedman v The Rector (1951) 37 C2d 16, 230 P2d 629.
What the above boils down to is that if this $250 per day demand doesn't represent anything other than a means of trying to push you out of the deal -- if there is no reasonable relationship between what the seller will lose during the contract extension and the proposed closing date, then your agreement will be deemed unconscionable and the court would only award damages to seller in the amount that represents seller's reasonable damages. This could be $250 per day -- or, it could be $0. The outcome depends on the facts.
What you would do would be to agree to the seller's demand under protest, and then when it comes to the closing date, you would refuse to pay the additional amount, and offer an amount that you believe is reasonable. If the seller refuses, then you would immediately demand mediation, followed by arbitration or litigation, as the case may be.
The seller will either cave in and take your offer, or you will be in a serious war over the final sales price. Alternatively, you could pay the additional funds, close and then sue to recover your money -- however, this puts all of the burden on you, so I think it is probably not as good an option as refusing to close the deal.
That's the best I can do for you. The strategy and tactics have legal merit, though I cannot promise that you will prevail. Every other road that I can see, leads to the seller canceling the deal right now, and keeping your deposit stuck in escrow while seller tries to sell the property to someone else.
Note: You asked several other related questions. I believe that my answer here covers all of your questions, except the one re leverage based upon a $4K offer. I do not believe that offering less improves your position if the seller rejects your offer -- because evidence of statements made during negotiation are inadmissible to prove liabiity in a subsequent legal action, if there is a reasonable possibility of litigation to follow. Evidence Code 1152. However, on the chance that your offer might be admissible, you may want to make it, anyway -- in writing, of coure.
Please let me know if I can be of further assistance.
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I am selling a house in CA. I am in escrow, the contract said escrow was to close on or before 10 June. The buyers have
Welcome and thank you for your question. I will be the professional that will be assisting you.
Depending on the terms set out in your contract you should have the right to refuse the extension and terminate the contract
What contract form are you using?
Did they ask for the extension pursuant to the terms of the contract
If they did not provide notice properly to extend they waived the contingency
They can disagree to pay money but they must request the extension properly
I understand
In essence you have not agreed to an extension as they did not agree to pay any money
You can terminate the contract at this time
That depends on whether they provided proper notice requesting the extension
If they provided proper notice and you refuse without them paying you additional money they did not waive their contingency would be entitled to a refund of the earnest. If they did not request the extension on the date required in the contract they waived their rights and you could retain the earnest money
Can you tell me the date your contract states is the contingency date to sell their home
So the date for notice should be in the contract Yes, exactly.
Are realtors involved
Then you needed notice on June 3
If no notice was provided on or before the date required in the contract they waived the contingency
Once the contingency is waived they were required to close on the closing date and if they did not they are in default
Have you discussed this with your realtor?
The realtor Should know the required date and be able to tell you.
I see.
I am not sure what she is saying.
If the notice was not sent as required in the contract on the date required in the contract the purchaser's waived their contingency
They needed to notify on the date required in the contract pursuant to the notice provisions
So now the realtor is praying that you will wait to close
If the purchasers did not send the required notice they are in default as they did not close as required per the contract
I understand
If they are in default they would forfeit the earnest money
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This is a link for the Buyer Notice to perform
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If you are using a CAR contract you will need to provide notice to perform to the purchasers.
Your realtor should have advised you of this.
If you did not send the notice you are correct that there is no contract protection.
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I bought a house with a rent back agreement which expires on 4/30/16. There is an additional addendum which states, "if
Welcome and thank you for your question. I just want to clarify the situation. You purchased a property and wherein the seller is renting back the property that you have already purchased and is not vacating on the agreed upon date. Is that correct? There should have been a rent back specified date that needed to be honored. Further, your agent should have been aware of the impact of extending the time frame. By any chance do you have a copy of the contract and addendum that you can attach? I am looking at this from as a disclosure issue and what to see if there is any language that provides you with the ability to remove the tenant if they will not leave voluntarily.
The 90 days is a lender issue. Let me take a look at the attachments. All that being said if the agreement does not set out all the proper terms you can move to have the tenant/seller evicted (which would be a burden on you) Your agent needed to protect your interests. Give me a few moments.
As far as my reading of the agreements the rent back date expires at the end of this month. The one line added that states if more time is needed would require a new agreement as you only agreed to April 30, 2016.
In essence the addendum expires on the April 30th and you would need a new agreement to continue the lease as the lease allows sets April 30th as the date. I am sorry that the agent provided this additional language and that has caused you concern, however, I see nothing that requires you to an automatic additional period of time.
Just to make sure that you are protected on all levels I would like to provide a link for a local attorney that provides free consultations so if you get any push back the attorney can send the seller a letter telling them that no agreement to extend will be agreed to by you.
That addendum is vague and the lease expires at the end of this month. They would be holding over without a new lease and you can evict them. The judge would look at the addendum together with the lease. A new agreement would be needed to grant the seller and extension. Perhaps a letter from an attorney would be enough incentive and you would not need to move forward with a formal eviction.
I have a link for you http://lawyers.findlaw.com/lawyer/firm/real-estate-law/hercules/california
If you would be kind enough to rate my service positively so I will receive credit for my time I would appreciate it.
The lease term is very clear that the termination date is April 30, 2016 See Paragraph 2 Term.
Further Paragraph 27 is also very clear
"27. TENANT'S OBLIGATIONS UPON VACATING PREMISES:
A. Upon termination of the Agreement, Tenant shall: (i) give Landlord all copies of all keys or opening devices to Premises,
including any common areas;
(ii) vacate and surrender Premises to Landlord, empty of all persons;
(iii) vacate any/all parking and/or storage space;
(iv) clean and deliver Premises, as specified in paragraph C below, to Landlord in the same condition
as referenced in paragraph 10;
(v) remove all debris;...
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