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I'm trying to find k that when |an|Cnk,|bn|Cnk, (|a0|C), f satisfies fC1(T) which can proof Fourier series is converged. I feel k may be 1 but I don't know how to proof it.

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(Apologies if this has already been said - MSE is telling me an answer already exists but I can't see it...)

No, f=1cos(nx)n shows that k=1 does not even imply f is continuous. (Because it's clear that σn(f,0).) Similarly, if f=sin(nx)n2 then f is certainly continuous, but not continuously differentiable; thus k=2 is not enough.

Otoh if k>2 then fC1, roughly because |n|k+1<.

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If f is in L2 then ak2+bk2< Since derivative of f has Fourier coefficients kak if the derivative belongs to L2 then (kak)2+(kbk)2< . Now, using Cauchy-Schwartz one gets this estimate

|ak|+|bk|=k|ak|/k+k|bk|/k<=((kak)2+(kbk)2)(1/k2)
So, if (kak)2+(kbk)2< then |ak|+|bk|< which implies that f has absolutely convergent Fourier series and is continuous. In short, if |kak|<1/k1+s and |kbk|<1/k1+s where s>1/2 then f is in C0(T) Using this trick multi times, one gets - if |kak|<1/km+s and |kbk|<1/km+s then f is in Cm1(T).

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