Just wondering what is the factual origin of the word troll in modern Internet discourse. I've tried to google it and sources seem to split between two possible origins: Scandinavian folklore creature and hunting / fishing term.
So what was the primary semantics of troll - "a person who irritates his/her communicative partners and destroys positive aura" (like a mythical monster) or "a person who intentionally provokes as many people as possible to start / join a word-fight" (thus 'catching' them as one would troll fish)?
EDIT: So to troll / trolling (as an action) came from fishing, while the meaning of its back-formation a troll (a person who does the act of trolling) merged with the semantics of homonym that refers to a mythical creature.
Thanks! This question has been bothering me for a while, and you've just made it clear to me. Best regards!
EDIT (2): Found another proof: "The term [troll] derives from fishing (the trailing of a baited hook to see what bites), though it also captures the resonance of the trolls of Scandinavian mythology – the bridge-guarders who would let people pass only if they answered a question correctly" - David Crystal, "Language and the Internet".
Trolling wasn't originally disruptive, as the Wikipedia article explains, so the fishing etymology is the most likely one. "Don't pay attention to him, he's just trolling" didn't use to mean that the person was being a jerk, just that they were posting silly newbie questions that everyone but newbies would immediately identify as being posted jokingly. A good example of trolling in the original sense would be posting "Dear /r/atheism, did you know that Darwin recanted his beliefs and converted to Christianity on his death bed? This invalidates your whole world view!" on reddit.
Then, as trolling changed over time and became less good-spirited and more malicious (cf. John Gabriel's Greater internet Fuckwad Theory), the word started to be used as a noun, and it was a fortunate coincidence that it referred to a disgusting bridge-dwelling creature. I guess some reverse etymology happened, as "trolling" started to mean "acting like a troll", i.e. being an asshole just for fun.
This is exactly it.
Trolling traditionally was about trying to "get a bite", and often involved a creative/playful element.
Of course, the difference between a provocative post and a post intentionally starting a flamewar is sometimes vague, and trolling started to acquire malicious overtones.
Oh, the Fuckwad Theory explains it all! :))
As far as I can see, nowadays 'professional' troll is an opposite to newbie - one must be really experienced in the Internet communication to make others 'feed' him (I exclude 'grammar nazis' that can turn unintentional misspelling into a trolling issue).
I've always assumed it was meant in the fishing sense, but by happy coincidence the homonym is equally applicable.
I've always assumed otherwise, as i didn't know "troll" was a fishing term at all. Funny how it works so well both ways. No wonder it stuck.
I think the folklore creature is more probable. Isn't the hunting/fishing term actually "trawl"?
In any event, any true meaning of the term has been lost in the past 10 years. It can mean anything from a practical joke and other such buffoonery to the much more popular meaning "I don't agree with your argument and I need to accuse you of not being serious".
"Trawl" and "troll" both exist in the context of fishing, and refer to different actions. Trawling is done with a net, trolling is done with bait.
It has two different meanings, the first referring to an action derived from trolling for newbies which borrow from the fishing technique of bait trailing and the second referring to an individual who chronically trolls. The nuance here is that trolling does not make you a troll, chronically doing it does, also it has the added notion of lack of purpose which has the effect of making it highly annoying and disruptive. A troll as individual will not end trolling with a YHBT. YHL. HAND. standing for You Have Been Trolled. You Have Lost. Have A Nice Day
It's all in the jargon file entry for troll. Another interesting resource: the consumerium wiki entry for troll.
Initially, I'd say it leans more towards the Scandinavian folklore meaning (i.e. someone who irritates and destroys positive aura), but the hunting/fishing term seems to fit a description of an 'Internet Troll' better - definitly intentionally provokes as many people as possible.
When did the term first come up? I'm just wondering because of this
I don't know when did it first come up, but that's even other option! Though I'm not sure whether the relation between Patent troll and Internet troll is parallel or derivative.
This explanation, and others like it, should be at the top of all websites with a social element to them. I'm nobody's prescriptivist but I get tired of people just using this term however they please.
In that case there should also be a sort of "DFTT" warning - that would help a lot =)))
I grew up in Maine
When speaking with older people, most of the time they spoke with a much thicker accent (namely, with variants of the New England accent, non-rhoticity is prominent) than people in my generation. It's still somewhat common to hear people speaking that way, but not nearly as common as I hear it used to be.
People look to the internet and television as causes all around the country for regional dialects disappearing.
This seems to be happening all over the U.S., but in places like U.K. it seems not to be as much of a thing.
Why is that?
I'm thinking of things like the conjugated prepositions, e.g. Irish chugat, from chun 'with', that doesn't exist in other IE languages.
A related question, what kind of typologically unusual or noteworthy stuff do you find in Celtic languages with respect to languages world-wide?
I'm teaching ESL grammar from a textbook and the prescription in the textbook has (as an example):
Either the boys or the girl _______ in the choir.
Students are told to use "sings" because it agrees with singular "girl" which is closest to the predicate.
I thought "that doesn't sound right" and another teacher also complained that since one of the listed possibilities is in the plural, the verb should agree in plurality.
Well, I thought, language is descriptive, not prescriptive, so I asked around to see what my fellow native speakers had to say. Not one thought "sings" sounded grammatical.
Is this an archaic construction? One of those "split infinitive bad" dealios? what exactly is going on here? What do you guys use?
Does anyone know good sources to learn about grammar of the Romansh language? I would like to find description of the verb conjugation paradigm, as well as maybe information about nouns and adjectives (number categories etc).
Doing some reading on PIE in my spare time, came across the concept of the "Sky Father", thought it was quite interesting. I understand there is ambiguity as to the exact pronunciation of h₂, I'm just looking for which options there might be. When looking through spoken PIE online I keep coming across videos of people pronouncing ph₂tḗr as simply "pter", is this correct?
I am from India, and I have observed that people around me who watch a lot of American and British shows and films have an accent that is still Indian, but is noticeably different from the people in the same age-group who don't expose themselves to such a comparable amount of American and British media.
So the question I have is: could the globalisation and easy-availability of foreign media lead to (even a noticeable, albeit slight) convergence in the variety of accents on a long enough timeline?
I'm having a hard time understanding the etymology of the Persian verb farâmuš kardan, meaning to forget in Persian.
The infnitive kardan is often used to make verbs from nouns and adjectives, so for this part there's no problem. the adjective here is farâmuš, and it translates as forgotten. In the book of Paul Horn, It is written : farâmuš, farâmušt, farâmušidan, since the infinitive is formed with -idan in Persian, it made me think that a verb farâmušidan meant to forget. I didn't find any translation for neither mušidan and farâmušidan. However. Inflected verb forms may become fossilized when the stem is forgotten or otherwise not recognizable, but dictionaries might index and add a supplemental paradigm to fit the pattern anyways. (c.f vectory).
Horn then states that the root of the word is a compound formed with *pra + *marš-/*mršyatē. At first glance, the structure seems similar (for me) to English 'forget' since it shares the same Indo-european prefix *per- with it. In English the prefix "for-", (which is descending from proto-germanic *fra- and finally from PIE *per-) means "out, away" and "get" is considered as "having a hold on smth", so forget etymologically means " to lose hold on smth [in someone's mind]" whence "to for-get". However in Farsi the fra- prefix connotes frontwards direction/movement. I doubt about if they are in the same context with english "forget" since Farsi don't consider his fra- as "out, away".
I am also not sure on the meaning of marš-, I looked on the internet and I found on PIE lexicon that *marš- means "in vain, without importance" in Proto -Indo-European, but I doubt that they are talking about the same marš- or if my source is correct.
If somebody has the time to explain me these etymological meanings and the semantics of this compound, it would be supe.
EDIT : The PIE *mŕ̥sē, according to pielexicon.hum.helsinki.fi/?alpha=8.2 , means " in vain, without success". Fara- comes from PIE *per- meaning "before, in front, first" and by extension it means " towards" ( I don't know how the fuck in front of evolved into towards, maybe because A is towards B when it's in front of it, sorry if I sound autistic)
So the meaning of farâmuš would be "[something leading] towards vain" > "forgetfulness > to forget
What do you think about it ?
Two part question.
First part is about the reference grammars written by linguists. I am looking for reference grammars, like the ones that documentary linguists make for Australian indigenous languages (with far less speakers), with the canonical overview of phonetics, phonology, morpho-syntax with some texts etc.
Second one about interesting research conducted on these languages recently. What papers can you recommend me?
E.g. all the verbs ending in -ate from the Latin -atum ending, or to elect from Latin electum rather than something like "to elige" from the Latin infinitive eligere
As the title suggests, I am asking linguists for top-level replies. I don't mind responses by non-linguists so long as they are comments.
Let me clarify what I mean by 'learning languages'.
Let's say that you have to go to Chiapas in Mexico to work with Tzotzil, a Mayan language there. You go and live in a small city, in stays of several months at a time. You also happen to have a keen interest in learning the language, although it is not strictly necessary for your work.
At the same time, an ordinary Dutch businessman has to go live and work there. For the purposes of his business, he also wants to learn Tzotzil. This Dutch businessman has access to Tzotzil speakers, like you do, he signs up for classes at the local community centre, he buys all the language material he can find. In other words, a highly motivated learner.
In what way would you as a linguist learn Tzotzil differently from him?
Would your answer change if the language being learned was not Tzotzil, but a language with much more resources and media available to the ordinary person, like Dutch?
If you don't think you learn languages in a substantially different way from non-linguists, or you think that you do, please explain why.
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**lin⋅guis⋅tics**: the scientific study of human *language* * what form does it take? * how is meaning constructed? * how is it structured? * how is it produced?