全 15 件のコメント

[–]shannondoahwishes to construct good pūrvapakṣins 6ポイント7ポイント  (7子コメント)

largely emerged as a reaction against British imperialism.

Which doesn't make it less legitimate. Nationalism itself is a thoroughly modern ideology.

If Islamic imperialism hadn't occurred, then one could have had multiple nationalities, and bound by a common Dharmic(?)(as "Hindu" identity as such began coalescing mainly in the 1500s with people like the Gaudiyas and Vijnanabhikshu).(paraphrasing Nicholson's * Unifying Hinduism: Philosophy and Identity in Indian Intellectual History*).

And despite the Maratha's "Confederacy" setup,Shivaji did try(his letter to Jaisingh). And Prolaya Vema Reddy and his alliances (iirc, with Vira Ballaala of Dwarasamudra) (he describes himself as as one of the 4th varna that emerged from the feet of Mahavisnu who decided to rid the land of the wicked Turushkas after kshatriyas had all been killed).

Of course, this predicates that Islam is always foreign.

[–]PeddaKondappaTelugu Ethnocentric Quasi-Fascist[S] 1ポイント2ポイント  (5子コメント)

Which doesn't make it less legitimate. Nationalism itself is a thoroughly modern ideology.

Nationalism, referring to the popular ideology that the state derive its legitimacy from the nation, and achieve congruence with it (as a nation-state), is indeed a modern phenomenon. However, it stretches credulity to believe that the nation is also a modern construction. If by nation we mean ethno-cultural groups with inherited similarities (the word "nation" is derived from Latin nationem meaning "that which is born"), then nations have existed since ancient times. I will list just three examples:

1) The ancient Greeks used the term barbaros, root of the modern term "barbarian," in reference to people who did not share the language and culture of the Greeks. For example, Paul in Romans 1:14 of the New Testament says, "I am under obligation both to Greeks and to barbarians, both to the wise and to the foolish"; here, he is using the term "barbarians" in the Classical Hellenic sense to mean "non-Greek." This shows that the pre-modern Greeks had a sense of "us vs. them" where an in-group and an out-group are defined by similarities and differences in culture, and where "Greeks" were considered to be a distinct ethno-cultural group separate from all other peoples (lumped collectively as barbaroi).

2) The Sassanian emperor Shapur I, in his multilingual inscription at the Kaba-ye Zardost, proclaimed himself "Lord of the Kingdom of the Aryans" in both Persian and Greek (Middle Persian: an. . .ērānšahr xwadāy hēm; Greek: egō . . .tou Arianōn ethnous despotēs eimi). The use of the Greek term ethnous is quite significant, as this is often translated as "nation" into English, and is indeed the root of the English word "ethnicity." This shows that the Persians used the term "Aryan" (Middle Persian, Eran) in reference to a unique Persian "nation" or "ethnicity." While Ardashir, the founder of the Sassanian Empire, called himself "King of Kings of the Aryans" (Parthian, Shahanshah Aryan), Ardashir's son Shapur took the title "King of Kings of the Aryans and Non-Aryans" (Parthian, Shahanshah Aryan-ud-Anaryan) because of his conquests outside of the Iranian heartland. Indeed, just as the Greeks referred to all non-Greeks as "barbarian," the Iranians referred to non-Iranians as "non-Aryan" (anaryan). Even the modern name "Iran" derives from Middle Persian Eran, which in turn derives from Parthian Aryan.

3) The kingdoms of South India, who frequently warred with each other, had a clear understanding of ethnic differences between different Dravidian nations. For example, during the wars between the Tamil Chola dynasty and the Kannadiga Chalukya dynasty, the Chalukya king Irivabedanga took the title of Tigula-mari or "Slayer of Tamils"; this clearly shows an in-group/out-group differentiation between Tamils and Kannadigas, because Irivabedanga obviously did not identify with the Tamils that he boasts of slaughtering. It is important here to note that the Chalukyas never adopted a title like "Slayer of Kannadigas" even when they fought against other Kannadiga dynasties (such as the Hoysalas), for the obvious reason that they were both Kannadigas. Similarly, the Telugu-speaking generals of the Kakatiya dynasty boasted about killing Tamils (Manuma Gandagopala, who fought against the Pandyas, boasted about burning Dravila or Tamil soldiers alive), but no Telugu general ever boasted about slaughtering Telugus even he fought against other Telugus, because the "Telugu" label would also include himself and his own clan.

If Islamic imperialism hadn't occurred, then one could have had multiple nationalities, and bound by a common Dharmic(?)(as "Hindu" identity as such began coalescing mainly in the 1500s with people like the Gaudiyas and Vijnanabhikshu).(paraphrasing Nicholson's * Unifying Hinduism: Philosophy and Identity in Indian Intellectual History*).

The "Hindu" identity emerged in opposition to Islam, just as the label of "Hindu" itself. Before the Islamic invasions, Indian followers of Dharmic religions/philosophies did not have any term to describe themselves. Muslims used the Persian term "Hindu" to denote any pagan from the land of al-Hind, and this term was later adopted by the "Hindus" themselves. In the absence of Islamic imperialism, it is unlikely that any such coalescing would have taken place. In the absence of British imperialism, it is unlikely that the "Hindus" would have ever united into a single state. At best, some Hindu polity (probably the Maratha Peshwa) might have tried to declare himself a Hindu "Caliph" or "Pope" and have all Hindu polities pay ritual (if not actual) obeisance to him, but I find even this to be quite unlikely. Hindus had absolutely no such tradition of centralized religious leadership (even today, there is no such thing), and moreover, the Marathas were hated and despised in many Indian regions in spite of their common religion.

[–]shannondoahwishes to construct good pūrvapakṣins 0ポイント1ポイント  (1子コメント)

nation we mean ethno-cultural groups with inherited similarities

That's where we differ. I'd strike out the 'ethno' part, following Medhatithi.

And you've failed to demonstrate that literally any nationalism in South Asia isn't modern.

moreover, the Marathas were hated and despised in many Indian regions in spite of their common religion.

That I know. The Bengali nursery rhyme on them, the historiographical controversy of Jadunath Sarkar (was feared he'd be unfair to the Marathas because he was a Bengali).

And if you can cite ethnic consciousnesses,I can say that cultural consciousnesses was stronger than ethnic ones (cf. Medhatithi in his Manubhasya who acknowledges ethnic identities and subordinates them).

Oh, or this is where I'm laughing evilly now. We could redefine away secularism and get that accepted in academia, so why not nationalism? ᕙ( ͡◉ ͜ ʖ ͡◉)ᕗ

I'd support smaller regional identities like Rarh,Varendra,Angika,Telengana etc and would think through for a way to better represent them.

[–]-b-a-d- 0ポイント1ポイント  (0子コメント)

That I know. The Bengali nursery rhyme on them, the historiographical controversy of Jadunath Sarkar (was feared he'd be unfair to the Marathas because he was a Bengali).

Didn't the Marathas destroy some key sites for Vaishnavites in Bengal?

nationalism

I think it already does have different definitions in different places, no? That's the thing. People say so many different things regarding such.

[–]-b-a-d- 0ポイント1ポイント  (1子コメント)

it is unlikely that the "Hindus" would have ever united into a single state.

I feel that in times of distress, if a hardcore alliance would be built by Hindus itself, maybe. But that would be highly unlikely. A reason why I think India became the alliance of ethnic groups today is due to distress during Independence for one from the British as you stated. And cultural traditions do tie in to an extent.

National pride and what not almost always jumps up to record high levels during terrorist attacks, wars, and what not. Even by the types of people who generally don't give a shit.

and moreover, the Marathas were hated and despised in many Indian regions in spite of their common religion.

That isn't even just a modern phenomenon. Most Nepalis also feel the same way about India despite sharing common religious and cultural ties. To the point where they even praise Pakistan for their anti-India activities. But this comes back to the other situation about "distress" which is what Nepal was in.

[–]PeddaKondappaTelugu Ethnocentric Quasi-Fascist[S] 0ポイント1ポイント  (0子コメント)

I feel that in times of distress, if a hardcore alliance would be built by Hindus itself, maybe. But that would be highly unlikely. A reason why I think India became the alliance of ethnic groups today is due to distress during Independence for one from the British as you stated. And cultural traditions do tie in to an extent.

You are right that people come together during times of "distress" (that is common sense), but I don't think that was the main factor why Hindus came together in British times as opposed to earlier. I think Hindus faced far more "distress" in Islamic times than in British times; the difference is that Hindus during the former period did not have a strong sense of common identity for this "distress" to matter in any relevant way. In contrast, Hindus during the colonial period had a stronger sense of common identity due to the creation of the first pan-Indian political organizations in Indian history (foremost among them being the INC) and the homogenization of Indian middle-class culture (by 1900, a middle-class, English-educated Telugu lawyer could feel real solidarity with a middle-class, English-educated Bengali lawyer, while a common Telugu peasant probably wouldn't have felt any significant kinship with a Bengali peasant). Indian "nationalism" was very much an elite-driven movement where Anglicized members of the upper and middle classes were at the forefront.

Overall, I think that it was a greater feeling of solidarity between upper- and middle-class Indians that led to the emergence of Indian nationalism, rather than simple "distress." Everything I have read suggests that Indians in Islamic times faced far greater distress than they did under colonial rule; the British never persecuted Hindus or destroyed temples in the manner that Muslim rulers often did, and they brought real peace and security to the land. However, due to the weakness of pan-Indian identity and solidarity during Islamic times, there was no pan-Indian political coalition or organization formed during that era, despite the great "distress" of those times.

[–]shannondoahwishes to construct good pūrvapakṣins 1ポイント2ポイント  (0子コメント)

Also since you're mentioning this

Tamils who have a strong sense of a monolithic ethno-linguistic identity

That too is a result of British imperial policies. Tamil lost court patronage after c.1350 in Hindu rulers of the region. And migration of Telugu to the region occurred. In the 1901 census, powerful Tamil castes like Chettiars and Velalars had like 25-35% literacy in Tamil. It was kept alive mainly for liturgical reasons (Thenakalai Sri Vaishnavas and Kamban for instance). It was mainly TamBrahms who had better Tamil literacy. And the establishment of the formal administrative machinery establishing English as an official language gave Tamil Brahmins a huge head start. You've people like U. Ve. Swaminatha Iyer discovering the Silappadikaram, then social changes and people like Periyar, that person whose former name was Vedachalam,Arumuga Navalar(various currents, I'm aware of the stark differences).

[–]nura2011 1ポイント2ポイント  (2子コメント)

To "debunk" Indian nationalism, you have to prove that it doesn't exist as of today and has never existed. But this is clearly wrong: there have been plenty of Indian nationalists from all regions in India, India has had a very prominent nationalist movement against the British, and most Indians today would strongly identify with their nation, India, even while being proud of their ethnic identities. Note that even if we accept that Indian nationalism arose from opposition to British rule, that still doesn't do anything to "debunk" it. Indian nationalism is an empirical fact.

The basic problem is that you're using the word "nation" and "nationalism" in a way that Indians themselves don't use it. You require a far greater degree of cultural, linguistic and ethnic homogeneity for a nation to be properly called a "nation" and for "nationalisms" to be valid. But that is simply not a requirement in modern Indian culture. Indians see their nation as a civilization that has crystallized into a modern democratic republic, and Indian nationalism is founded on their consciousness as belonging to this civilizational democratic republic. If the countries of Europe went further in their project of unification, you'd have something like what Indians mean by a "nation".

[–]PeddaKondappaTelugu Ethnocentric Quasi-Fascist[S] 0ポイント1ポイント  (1子コメント)

To "debunk" Indian nationalism, you have to prove that it doesn't exist as of today and has never existed. But this is clearly wrong: there have been plenty of Indian nationalists from all regions in India, India has had a very prominent nationalist movement against the British, and most Indians today would strongly identify with their nation, India, even while being proud of their ethnic identities. Note that even if we accept that Indian nationalism arose from opposition to British rule, that still doesn't do anything to "debunk" it. Indian nationalism is an empirical fact.

Well, I have never denied that Indian "nationalism" exists today. I said as much in my OP, when I said that there was "nothing that could remotely approach modern pan-Indian nationalism until the 19th century." This statement implies that, from the 19th century onward, there was such a thing as pan-Indian "nationalism." What I did in the OP is debunk the historical validity of Indian "nationalism," by demonstrating that there was no such thing as an Indian "nation" before modern times. You could still be an Indian "nationalist," but only if you renounce pre-modern Indian history, and accept the British colonization of India in modern times as the beginning point of Indian national history. The modern Indian "nation-state" is nothing more than the dialectical synthesis of British colonialism (thesis) and Indian anti-colonialism (antithesis).

The basic problem is that you're using the word "nation" and "nationalism" in a way that Indians themselves don't use it. You require a far greater degree of cultural, linguistic and ethnic homogeneity for a nation to be properly called a "nation" and for "nationalisms" to be valid. But that is simply not a requirement in modern Indian culture. Indians see their nation as a civilization that has crystallized into a modern democratic republic, and Indian nationalism is founded on their consciousness as belonging to this civilizational democratic republic. If the countries of Europe went further in their project of unification, you'd have something like what Indians mean by a "nation".

Actually, the word "nation" (and by extension, "nationalism") has a pretty specific and well-defined meaning, though unfortunately this original meaning has become quite obfuscated in recent times, due to inappropriate usages of the word "nation" (such as its use in reference to any sovereign state). I have already demonstrated in other posts on this thread that nations have existed in pre-modern times, and that national consciousness and awareness existed at least among a few pre-modern individuals (largely the aristocratic elites of a particular ethnic group, though occasionally among commoners as well).

The problem with the Indian nationalist narrative that India was a "civilization that crystallized into a nation" is that it is a false narrative, and overlooks the massive elephant in the room. The creation of the Indian "nation" was not an indigenous Indian process of "crystallization," but a result of British colonialism forcibly uniting various Indian regions into one whole. This is why Nepal is not a part of modern India, while Mizoram is (on what basis is Mizoram a part of Indian "civilization," while Nepal is not?).

Neither Europe nor India are "nations" in any meaningful, historical sense. That was the point of the first part of the OP, where I explicitly compared pre-modern India (really, pre-modern Hindu civilization) with the pre-modern West. It was a reductio ad absurdum, where the absurdity of the Indian nationalist position was brought to bear via a direct comparison with Western civilization.

[–]nura2011 0ポイント1ポイント  (0子コメント)

When you use the word "nation" (quoting from your post, "a Nation is a community of people who share ties of blood (ethnicity), speech, and culture that are inherited from birth over many generations") you actually seem to mean "ethnic nation", but even a casual glance at the web shows that there are many different kinds of nations and many different kinds of nationalisms. You yourself admit as much when you complain of "inappropriate" uses of the term.

Large groups of humans can and do come together based on different kinds of stories and define themselves as a nation. To argue that one kind of "nation" is the only kind of nation that should be valid is ultimately just semantic pedantry. To claim that India is not a nation flies in the face of the empirical reality that Indians see themselves as a nation and that Indian nationalism is a historical fact. But Indians are clearly not a single ethnicity. So this begs the question, in what sense is India a "nation"? It seems to me that India is a nation in the sense that it has the following traits:

  • A consciousness among the Indian people as constituting one nation and as having a shared national identity
  • A national narrative starting from prehistoric times as constituting one of the unique civilizational branches of humanity and an awareness its interactions with outsiders
  • Is seen by outsiders as being one nation
  • A shared cultural and religious background with many common traits, themes and values
  • Sense of a shared destiny and a commitment to collective upliftment

The creation of the Indian "nation" was not an indigenous Indian process of "crystallization," but a result of British colonialism forcibly uniting various Indian regions into one whole. This is why Nepal is not a part of modern India, while Mizoram is (on what basis is Mizoram a part of Indian "civilization," while Nepal is not?).

Whether or not the crystallization was indigenous and whether or not it had prehistoric roots is not as relevant as that it happened. As to why Nepal is not part of India etc., that is just how history played out. These human affairs are rarely Mathematically precise.

In your OP, you say that Europe also had similar civilizational commonalities as India, but that it'd be absurd to call it a nation. My counter argument is that, (a) nation or not, Europe has moved considerably towards some form of unification in the post WWII period, India just took it to the logical conclusion; and (b) that Europeans don't consider themselves as a nation doesn't stop Indians from considering themselves to be one. To argue for the authenticity of the European state of affairs but not the Indian one would be a form of Eurocentrism. In many ways, India is in a league of its own and should be judged by its own standards.

But aren't Kannadigas, Tamilians and Maharashtrians ethnic nations? Sure. I think it's probably best to call the kind of nation India is as a "civilizational nation" that comprises of many "ethnic nations", because this is in effect clearly how Indians see themselves to be.

[–]tejmukVader to /u/shannondoah's Palpatine 1ポイント2ポイント  (1子コメント)

The problem with your definition of nationalism is that it's far too prescriptivist and ignorant of the reality of history and geopolitics.

The concept of Nationality began to arise after the peace of Westphalia in 1648, and this is pretty widely accepted. The two first nation-states were the German 2nd Reich and the Kingdom of Italy. This is also widely accepted. Your definition of nationalism doesn't have any limits, because if "Germans" and "Italians" are valid indivisible national units then surely "Bavarian", "Frisian", "Saxon", "Piedmontese", "Sicilian" or "Venetian" are also equally valid, hence invalidating the first two. There are plenty of nations which are non-ethnicities, and also plenty of ethnicities which aren't nations in their own right (like Berbers, , Sami, Romani and Rohingya).

I'm not so much an Indian nationalist as I am a Hindu nationalist, and my conception of such is modelled on Zionism. Nobody disputes Israel's nationhood (just the right of it to occupy historically arab lands), despite it also being very diverse, racially. Aryans can be compared to Ashkenazim, Dravidians to Mizrachim, Tibeto-Burmans to Sephardim etc.

[–]PeddaKondappaTelugu Ethnocentric Quasi-Fascist[S] 1ポイント2ポイント  (0子コメント)

The problem with your definition of nationalism is that it's far too prescriptivist and ignorant of the reality of history and geopolitics. The concept of Nationality began to arise after the peace of Westphalia in 1648, and this is pretty widely accepted. The two first nation-states were the German 2nd Reich and the Kingdom of Italy. This is also widely accepted. Your definition of nationalism doesn't have any limits, because if "Germans" and "Italians" are valid indivisible national units then surely "Bavarian", "Frisian", "Saxon", "Piedmontese", "Sicilian" or "Venetian" are also equally valid, hence invalidating the first two.

Just like shannondoah, you don't understand the difference between nation, nationalism, and nation-state. Nationalism and nation-states are modern developments, but nations are not. If you knew German history, you would know that since 1474, the First Reich was also called the Holy Roman Empire of the German Nation (Heiliges Römisches Reich Deutscher Nation). This name was adopted because the HRE lost much of its non-German territories in Italy and Burgundy by the late 15th century, and the German princely states became the dominant force in the empire. If Germans had no concept of belonging to a "nation" prior to Bismarck's political unification of Germany, then why did Germans 400 years prior to Bismarck explicitly connect the HRE with the German nation?

The reason why "Bavarian" and "Thuringian" and "Saxon" and other such identities are not valid national identities is because they clearly belonged to a larger ethno-linguistic community, whether they realized it or not. These are instead regional identities. In the age before widespread literacy, mass print communications, and public education, it was quite common for ordinary people to associate with regional or local identities more than a broader ethno-linguistic (national) identity, which they may or may not have been even aware of. Rather, in pre-modern times, it was the elites who were most aware of these broader commonalities, and most likely to associate with them; German princes of the HRE in the 15th century were far more likely to associate with a "German nation" than some lowly farmer or tradesman in Saxony. Nationalism is vertical (demotic) in nature, meaning that a feeling of national belonging and solidarity extends across social classes and is not restricted to particular social groups, and in this sense nationalism is a thoroughly modern ideology. However, this does not mean that pre-modern feelings of national solidarity did not exist; rather, such "proto-nationalist" feelings were lateral and aristocratic in nature, as seen in various pre-modern entities such as Tudor England, the German First Reich, Imperial China, and Kakatiya Telangana.

There are plenty of nations which are non-ethnicities, and also plenty of ethnicities which aren't nations in their own right (like Berbers, , Sami, Romani and Rohingya).

All nations are ethnicities by the original definition of the word "nation," which is still used today in many cases (e.g. the "First Nations" of Canada). This is also why the term "stateless nation" is used in reference to groups such as Kurds, Rohingyas, Uyghurs, Basques, etc. The use of the word "nation" in the sense of "sovereign state" (e.g. the "nation of South Africa") is a very recent development, and has unfortunately led to much confusion.

I'm not so much an Indian nationalist as I am a Hindu nationalist, and my conception of such is modelled on Zionism. Nobody disputes Israel's nationhood (just the right of it to occupy historically arab lands), despite it also being very diverse, racially. Aryans can be compared to Ashkenazim, Dravidians to Mizrachim, Tibeto-Burmans to Sephardim etc.

The Jews were not a single "nation" before the modern Zionist movement promoted the homogenization of the Jewish peoples (note the plural) into a single entity, giving them among other things a common language (Hebrew) that is distinct to the Jews. Despite their clear ethnic differences, many Ashkenazim were open to intermarriage with Mizrahim and Sephardim in the interests of creating a larger Jewish "nation," though many black African Jews continue to be discriminated against (which is to be expected given the artificiality of the Jewish "nation"). In contrast, Indians have no common language (and never will), and moreover, they have a long history of having separate ethno-linguistic identities, as I have described on this thread. The Indian "nation" was borne out of Lady Britannia, nothing more and nothing less.