Ok, but that example doesn't really answer my question: Why is calling automod ban a shadow ban as contentious as it is?
The crux of your argument is a point of mis-attribution (saying person A did a thing when really it was person B, even though person A is the only person who can actually do said thing), where as mine is Semantics (both group A and B do a thing, A can check a box that says "do the thing" where as group B has to do a few steps, none of which is called "Do the thing". By the end of the day, the thing is done by both groups.)
A ban is rather straight forward. You either get a warning or you dont, but when you go to post you are forbidden. Everyone can do this.
A shadowban (
Link
for fun, its from 2007, and has been in use for longer than that), is where you a mod or admin makes it so your posts go through, but noone can see it.
On reddit, Admins can check a box or something, and the shadowban happens.
On reddit, Mods were not given that functionality. However, they were given a tool by an admin to automatically mark as spam any word or username they want. This means without warning all your posts through but nobody can see them.
Which is functionally what a shadowban is.
Which is where my confusion on the opposition to calling it what it is.
If there are 2 different roads into a city, the city doesn't change names depending on the road, right? Nor who is driving the car?
Why is this different?
(A corollary to this question is: The Admins specifically didn't give mods the shadowban checkbox. Why is this method kosher?)