Jul 2, 2014
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Anonymous asked: Hi, just wanted to follow up on your response to my "oppressor group is defined too broadly" question. You criticise my assertion that the definition is too broad. That's a fair point, but when the probability of that statement being true is only dependent on the existence of a single counter-example (a male who actively does not oppress), which I'm willing to bet exists. On 2: is it not true that women can also oppress women? See anti-abortion politicians, etc.

All men oppresses women. There are no exceptions. Some women are partaking in this oppression, but it doesn’t make them part of the oppressor class (men).

- Pi

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